Guest gmag00 Posted September 23, 2008 Posted September 23, 2008 1.401(l)-2 of the Treas. Regs. states that, in performing an integrated profit sharing allocation calulation, the maximum excess allowance for a plan year is the lesser of: 1) the base contribution %; or 2) the greater of: a) 5.7% (as required to be reduced if the integration level is different that the taxable wage base) or b) the % rate of tax under OASDI, currently 6.2%, (also as required to be reduced for fractional taxable wage base concerns). Therefore, if, for example, an integration calculation is performed with a base contribution % of 7%, the regs seem to indicate that the maximum excess allowance could be as a high as 6.2%. However, I have never seen anything greater than a 5.7% maximum excess allowance allocation in any prototype plan or considerd within any general discussion of the topic. Is there a problem with exceeding the 5.7% limit that is not evident from simply reading the regs?
Guest Sieve Posted September 23, 2008 Posted September 23, 2008 The reg says the greater of 5.7% or "the old age insurance portion of [OASDI] . . ." (Treas. Reg. Section 1.401(l)-2(b(2)(ii)(B).) The IRS, however, doesn't tell us how much of OASDI is represented by the OA portion. So, for the time being, we're stuck with 5.7%. Notice that the reg also requires the Commissioner to publish the rate IF it exceeds 5.7%, &, in that case, also to publish a revised integration level table. I've yet to see any such numbers or tables published.
Jim Chad Posted September 24, 2008 Posted September 24, 2008 gmag00 Are you asking what would happen if you used a formula of, for example 10% on the excess? If you did this, you would not have a safe harbor allocation formula and you would have to pass general nondiscrimination testing.
Guest gmag00 Posted September 24, 2008 Posted September 24, 2008 Thx Sieve and Jim. I missed the "old age insurance portion of the OASDI" part of the regs and that's where I started down the wrong path. Much obliged.
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