Andy the Actuary Posted November 10, 2008 Posted November 10, 2008 A db plan was totally frozen as of January 1, 2005. The services provider has indicated to the client that if the AFTAP falls below 60%, the Plan may not pay any restricted payments. I have reread the code and August 2006 proposed regulations and do not get this interpretation. I.e., there would be no prohibited payments except possibly to HCEs. Do I need to go for an eye examination? The material provided and the opinions expressed in this post are for general informational purposes only and should not be used or relied upon as the basis for any action or inaction. You should obtain appropriate tax, legal, or other professional advice.
david rigby Posted November 10, 2008 Posted November 10, 2008 Nope. I'm a retirement actuary. Nothing about my comments is intended or should be construed as investment, tax, legal or accounting advice. Occasionally, but not all the time, it might be reasonable to interpret my comments as actuarial or consulting advice.
Andy the Actuary Posted November 10, 2008 Author Posted November 10, 2008 Nope. Thank you. The material provided and the opinions expressed in this post are for general informational purposes only and should not be used or relied upon as the basis for any action or inaction. You should obtain appropriate tax, legal, or other professional advice.
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