flosfur Posted November 24, 2008 Posted November 24, 2008 DB/DC combo plans are being aggregated for 401(a)(4). The aggregated plans do not pass under the "Annual Method". So the next option is to use the "Accrued-To-Date Method". Can one use the following approach? 1) Compute the DB plan's Normal & Most Valuable annual accruals (NARs & MVARs) using the "Accrued-To-Date method", and 2) Compute the DC plan's Equivalent annual accruals using the "Annual Method" (to avoid having to collect data required for the "Accrued-To-Date Method"). Then add the DB & DC's annual accruals and compute the accrual rates therefrom.
tymesup Posted November 25, 2008 Posted November 25, 2008 1.401(a)(4)-3(d)(1)(iii) defines "Measurement period" as current; current and all prior *; or current and all prior and future years. Since this must be an exclusive "or", I don't think you can mix your methods. Note that -(d)(2)(i) has a consistency requirement. I hope that a post time of 2:58 am is due to a different time zone. * Never noticed the "all prior" language before. I suppose it could have been advantageous to use some of the prior years.
AndyH Posted November 25, 2008 Posted November 25, 2008 I don't think you can do it either, as I don't think it meets any of the exceptions to the consistency requirements. I'd have to spend a good deal of time researching it to be certain, but that is my understanding and quick re-read of the regs.
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