Earl Posted November 29, 2008 Posted November 29, 2008 I thought I remembered reading a requirement that stated if you have a loan in default you cannot get a new loan. I sure can't find it now that the situation has arisen. Anyone have any clues on this or am I imagining it? Thank you CBW
K2retire Posted November 29, 2008 Posted November 29, 2008 It depends on the plan's loan policy provisions. I remember being taught that if a participant had defaulted on a loan then the plan administrator must take that into account in determining credit worthiness for a subsequent loan. Also, some plans limit the number of outstanding loans and the defaulted one counts toward that limit until repaid. Corbel's EGTRRA prototype has specific choices in the loan policy that ask if the plan administrator must determine credit worthiness and if a participant may have another loan after a default. That implies that the answer to your question might be yes.
Earl Posted December 1, 2008 Author Posted December 1, 2008 Good summary of policy guidelines, know any regulatory guidelines on the issue? Thanks CBW
Tom Poje Posted December 1, 2008 Posted December 1, 2008 also, for purposes of determining how much loan is available, even though the defaulted is no longer considered for other purposes, the defaulted loan continues to accrue interest, so even if a plan allows more than one loan, the individual is 'penalized' so to speak
Guest Sieve Posted December 1, 2008 Posted December 1, 2008 For some guidelines, see Treas. Reg. Sectino 1.72(p)-1, Q&A-19.
Earl Posted December 1, 2008 Author Posted December 1, 2008 Thanks, so I guess there is no express prohibition and I was dreaming. Appreciate it. CBW
Guest Sieve Posted December 1, 2008 Posted December 1, 2008 Well, Earl . . . maybe you weren't dreaming, but just smokin' . . . ??? Besides, as suggested by K2, there may be a plan prohibition.
Earl Posted December 2, 2008 Author Posted December 2, 2008 Since we are talking about the owner, I am not really worried about what the plan says because I can change that in about 5 minutes. But there are those pesky regulations that continue to harrass me. Thanks again. CBW
K2retire Posted December 2, 2008 Posted December 2, 2008 Since we are talking about the owner, I am not really worried about what the plan says because I can change that in about 5 minutes. But there are those pesky regulations that continue to harrass me. Thanks again. If it's an owner only plan, you're fine. If not, be careful that you change doesn't happen in a discriminatory manner. Has anyone else had a defaulted loan who could be impacted?
QDROphile Posted December 2, 2008 Posted December 2, 2008 If the borrower is the owner, you have great sensitivity because loans that are not paid are essentially in-service distributions. Who is making the decision to make the loan? Is there an intent and capability to pay? If there is, why has not the first loan been paid? I think the situation is terribly sticky and just the sort of thing the IRS would jump on if it ever enforced anything.
Earl Posted December 2, 2008 Author Posted December 2, 2008 If the borrower is the owner, you have great sensitivity because loans that are not paid are essentially in-service distributions. Who is making the decision to make the loan? Is there an intent and capability to pay? If there is, why has not the first loan been paid? I think the situation is terribly sticky and just the sort of thing the IRS would jump on if it ever enforced anything. That sounds just like what I told him. Except I said dangerous instead of sticky. CBW
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