FAPInJax Posted December 8, 2008 Posted December 8, 2008 The IRS has kind of described the calculations necessary for valuing death benefits - permitting the recognition at the BOY for funding target purposes of the death benefit. Termination benefits would take the benefit payable at termination and determine a present value and multiply by the probability of withdrawal from the plan. The law refers to valuing benefits accrued or earned during the year. There is no reference to vesting. Should vesting be applied during the the valuation?
Andy the Actuary Posted December 8, 2008 Posted December 8, 2008 The IRS has kind of described the calculations necessary for valuing death benefits - permitting the recognition at the BOY for funding target purposes of the death benefit.Termination benefits would take the benefit payable at termination and determine a present value and multiply by the probability of withdrawal from the plan. The law refers to valuing benefits accrued or earned during the year. There is no reference to vesting. Should vesting be applied during the the valuation? [x] Yup [ ] Nope Otherwise, you will have overstated liabilities (and deductions). While Sec. 430 speaks of benefits accrued (and not vested benefits), it is reasonable to infer present value incorporates vesting as it would eligibility for an unreduced early retirement benefit (which does not alter the amount of benefit accrued but merely the payment). The material provided and the opinions expressed in this post are for general informational purposes only and should not be used or relied upon as the basis for any action or inaction. You should obtain appropriate tax, legal, or other professional advice.
SoCalActuary Posted December 10, 2008 Posted December 10, 2008 I agree with Andy. If there is a decrement that produces a zero liability, as with a termination before vesting or with a death for an unmarried participant in some plans, then the benefit for that decrement is zero.
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