FAPInJax Posted December 18, 2008 Posted December 18, 2008 The following data is used in the example: Participant age 55 retiring at 65 and has 5 years of accrual / service. The formula is 100% of high 3 with a valuation date of 1/1/2008. Compensation 2007 200,000 2006 150,000 2005 100,000 Benefit for funding target (200,000 + 150,000 + 100,000) / 3 * (5/15) = 50,000 Benefit for target normal cost (200,000 + 200,000 + 150,000) / 3 * (6/15) - 50,000 = 23,333.33 Benefit for cushion 200,000 * 5/15 = 66,666.67 Therefore, my maximum would be the target normal cost plus funding target plus 50% of the funding target plus the difference between the cushion and the funding target less assets. Now, a different scenario. A similar plan, however, compensation is only recognized while a participant as it is a new plan. Benefit for funding target is zero (no compensation) Benefit for target normal cost 200,000 * (6/15) = 80,000 (however, this should be limited to 1/10 of the 185,000 dollar limit?) Benefit for cushion 200,000 * 5/15 = 66,666.67 Therefore, my maximum would be the target normal cost plus the difference between the cushion and funding target. The latter example seems to be a strange result.
Andy the Actuary Posted December 18, 2008 Posted December 18, 2008 The following data is used in the example:Participant age 55 retiring at 65 and has 5 years of accrual / service. The formula is 100% of high 3 with a valuation date of 1/1/2008. Compensation 2007 200,000 2006 150,000 2005 100,000 Benefit for funding target (200,000 + 150,000 + 100,000) / 3 * (5/15) = 50,000 Benefit for target normal cost (200,000 + 200,000 + 150,000) / 3 * (6/15) - 50,000 = 23,333.33 Benefit for cushion 200,000 * 5/15 = 66,666.67 Therefore, my maximum would be the target normal cost plus funding target plus 50% of the funding target plus the difference between the cushion and the funding target less assets. Now, a different scenario. A similar plan, however, compensation is only recognized while a participant as it is a new plan. Benefit for funding target is zero (no compensation) Benefit for target normal cost 200,000 * (6/15) = 80,000 (however, this should be limited to 1/10 of the 185,000 dollar limit?) Benefit for cushion 200,000 * 5/15 = 66,666.67 Therefore, my maximum would be the target normal cost plus the difference between the cushion and funding target. The latter example seems to be a strange result. Just another stirling example of the law of unintended consequences and why Congress would do well to scrap PPA in entirety. The material provided and the opinions expressed in this post are for general informational purposes only and should not be used or relied upon as the basis for any action or inaction. You should obtain appropriate tax, legal, or other professional advice.
tymesup Posted December 27, 2008 Posted December 27, 2008 I think the benefit for the TNC and the cushion would be limited to the 415 limit of 18,500.
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