Guest Enda80 Posted December 25, 2008 Posted December 25, 2008 If an employer has different plans (the same employer, I must specify); say for example, a 401(k) plan for unassociated-with-the-union employees, a different plan for union employees, and a defined benefit plan (which serves to augment the 401(k) plan), how does that affect the determination of proper coverage?
Effen Posted December 27, 2008 Posted December 27, 2008 Any employees subject to collective bargaining can generally be excluded for "coverage" testing and "non-discrimination" testing. The other participants would need to be considered when performing coverage and non-discrimination testing on the various plans. The material provided and the opinions expressed in this post are for general informational purposes only and should not be used or relied upon as the basis for any action or inaction. You should obtain appropriate tax, legal, or other professional advice.
david rigby Posted December 27, 2008 Posted December 27, 2008 To elaborate on Effen's answer, the "collective bargaining" exclusion applies to where pension benefits are the subject of good-faith bargaining. Not exactly the same as "union". See IRC 410(b) and regs. I'm a retirement actuary. Nothing about my comments is intended or should be construed as investment, tax, legal or accounting advice. Occasionally, but not all the time, it might be reasonable to interpret my comments as actuarial or consulting advice.
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