Medusa Posted March 11, 2009 Posted March 11, 2009 The firm that I work for seems to routinely allow retroactive plan termination dates for defined benefit plans (non-Title IV). For example, they are trying to terminate some now, effective 12/31/08, on the basis that there haven't yet been any 2009 benefit accruals. I say no and am becoming very unpopular. Am I correct that there is simply no basis at all for doing a retroactive plan termination? This is one of those things that I thought everyone knew but now I'm starting to doubt myself.
david rigby Posted March 11, 2009 Posted March 11, 2009 IMHO, a termination date must be affirmatively adopted (by the relevant authority) on or before its effective date. However, it is perfectly reasonable to terminate a plan today (for example), knowing that the benefit has not changed since 12/31/08, since there is no 2009 service. This is not a 12/31/08 termination date, and the 2009 plan year is fully effective. I'm a retirement actuary. Nothing about my comments is intended or should be construed as investment, tax, legal or accounting advice. Occasionally, but not all the time, it might be reasonable to interpret my comments as actuarial or consulting advice.
John Feldt ERPA CPC QPA Posted March 11, 2009 Posted March 11, 2009 I would not think this possible either. You cannot avoid the schedule B requirement by retroactively adopting a plan terminaton date. Have they submitted their plan termination amendments for IRS review (via Form 5310)? If yes, did the IRS say anything about that?
Medusa Posted March 12, 2009 Author Posted March 12, 2009 Thank you. I am not insane. The attraction of retroactive termination is the potential savings of (a) not having to pay for a valuation for the current year and (b) not having to possibly come up with a required contribution for the year. That being said, these would not be the clients who agree to incur the extra expense of applying for a determination letter. Know what I mean? Thanks again, Med
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