flosfur Posted March 24, 2009 Posted March 24, 2009 DOV = 12/31/08. Carryover credit balance from 2007 Sch B = 45 2008 Sch SB lines Line 2b: Value of assets @ DOV: 85 Line 3: Funding Target @ DOV: 100 BOY balances Lines 9 & 13 = 45 (no reduction balances @ 01/01/08, i.e. line 12 = zero) Following the Sch SB instructions, Lines 14 & 15: FTAP & AFTAP = (Assets minus Credit Balances)/Funding Target = (85-45)/100 = 40% @ val date!?? 40% FTAP/AFTAP on Sch SB doesn't look good! Also, the AFTAP of 40% is not correct because, per S436(f)(3) the credit balance is deemed to be reduced down to 5 so that AFTAP is 80%! Do I show 40% on lines 14 & 15 or 80% but show reduction in balances of 40 on line 12 and balance of 5 on line 13?
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