Guest Carrie Dover Posted May 14, 2009 Posted May 14, 2009 When an IRA distribution is taken "in kind" and the shares are sent to a taxable account the cost basis on the shares in the taxable acount is the fair market value (FMV) on the distribution date. Could anyone tell me where I can find this in print i.e. IRS Pub or Reg?
J Simmons Posted May 15, 2009 Posted May 15, 2009 Don't know of a cite. But you gain basis from the fact that the distribution results in taxable income to the IRA owner in the amount of the fair market value of the shares, and by reason of paying the tax on that amount, you have tax basis in that amount. John Simmons johnsimmonslaw@gmail.com Note to Readers: For you, I'm a stranger posting on a bulletin board. Posts here should not be given the same weight as personalized advice from a professional who knows or can learn all the facts of your situation.
masteff Posted May 15, 2009 Posted May 15, 2009 It's definitional of the tax basis of an asset. See what John said above. It's semi-analogous to a partnership, where a partner pays tax on income that's not distributed, resulting in an increase in basis. (edited to remove the part that John had said just as well as I ended up with). Kurt Vonnegut: 'To be is to do'-Socrates 'To do is to be'-Jean-Paul Sartre 'Do be do be do'-Frank Sinatra
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