JAY21 Posted July 13, 2009 Posted July 13, 2009 Facts (simplified): Calendar Year Plan terminates 8/31/08 All assets distributed by 10/31/08 Valuation Date: 12/31/08 I don't believe I am required to change to a BOY-Val. If I don't, is there any reason I can't just show zeroes (0's) on the Schedule B since my Fair Market Value of assets is $0 and my benefit liabilities as of 12/31/08 is $0 too ? The only reason I question it is that I had an accrual for 2008 which would produce a normal cost but on 12/31/08 all benefits and liabilities are $0. I don't think it would make sense to show a normal cost on the Schedule SB if all assets & liabilities are paid out before 12/31/08. Any thoughts ? Is this another "no current guidance" question ? If so, opinions are still appreciated.
david rigby Posted July 14, 2009 Posted July 14, 2009 1. Can you use a val date of 12/31/08 if the plan no longer exists? Would the correct val date be EOY = 10/31/08? 2. Why is a non-zero NC a problem? I'm a retirement actuary. Nothing about my comments is intended or should be construed as investment, tax, legal or accounting advice. Occasionally, but not all the time, it might be reasonable to interpret my comments as actuarial or consulting advice.
JAY21 Posted July 14, 2009 Author Posted July 14, 2009 David, I suppose you're right on the val date changing to 10/31/08, but the issue then is still the same. To me if there is an accrual there is a normal cost, but with no assets or participants in the plan as of 10/31/08 is it ok to show $0 normal cost though there was an accrual ?
david rigby Posted July 14, 2009 Posted July 14, 2009 IMHO, the existence of the NC is separate from the issue of the plan termination and distribution. I see no problem with showing a NC. I'm a retirement actuary. Nothing about my comments is intended or should be construed as investment, tax, legal or accounting advice. Occasionally, but not all the time, it might be reasonable to interpret my comments as actuarial or consulting advice.
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