abanky Posted December 11, 2009 Posted December 11, 2009 Is my understanding of this correct? No tax advantage, no 401/410 testing... it has to be in writing... Basically its a promise to an employee or group of employees that upon their termination they will get x amount of dollars. Anything else?
Effen Posted December 11, 2009 Posted December 11, 2009 I think there is more to it than that. Rules are much tighter now than before. Documents need to be specific, especially regarding lump sums and eligibility. There are also rules related to when the distuributions must be received. Sometimes they are funded with a trust, sometimes with insurance, sometimes not at all. They need to be recognized for FASB purposes I am certianly not an expert, but I know their impact shouldn't be underestimated. Probably best to find an attorney who works with them to get an idea what is involved. The material provided and the opinions expressed in this post are for general informational purposes only and should not be used or relied upon as the basis for any action or inaction. You should obtain appropriate tax, legal, or other professional advice.
XTitan Posted December 11, 2009 Posted December 11, 2009 It's a little bit more than that. See IRC 409A and the 397 pages of regulations under that. - There are two types of people in the world: those who can extrapolate from incomplete data sets...
david rigby Posted December 11, 2009 Posted December 11, 2009 Probably best to find an attorney who works with them to get an idea what is involved. And an actuary who is familiar with FAS 87/158. I'm a retirement actuary. Nothing about my comments is intended or should be construed as investment, tax, legal or accounting advice. Occasionally, but not all the time, it might be reasonable to interpret my comments as actuarial or consulting advice.
Guest Spock Posted December 15, 2009 Posted December 15, 2009 Speaking of non-qualified plans, our plan contains a provision (likely right out of 409A) that says we are to withhold for 6-months any distributions due to a Key Employee, "as determined in accordance with 416(i). 416(i) talks about 5% and 1% owners. If the officer owns less than 1% of the outstanding stock, does that mean the 6-month delay does not apply to that person?
SoCalActuary Posted December 15, 2009 Posted December 15, 2009 '(i) Definitions For purposes of this section - (1) Key employee (A) In general The term ''key employee'' means an employee who, at any time during the plan year, is - (i) an officer of the employer having an annual compensation greater than $130,000,' I presume your CEO fits this definition. You can be a key employee without ownership.
XTitan Posted December 15, 2009 Posted December 15, 2009 For completeness, the comp limit is indexed and is currently 160,000. - There are two types of people in the world: those who can extrapolate from incomplete data sets...
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