abanky Posted March 29, 2010 Posted March 29, 2010 1/1/2010 valuation date. 2009 Aftap 63% Currently, the 2010 aftap is at 59.6% not reflected in the assets are the contributions receivable to the 2009 plan year. Can I assume the receivables will be made and issue an aftap over 60% or do I have to freeze accruals until the contributions are made and then reissue an aftap? Thanks, Andrew
david rigby Posted March 29, 2010 Posted March 29, 2010 See IRS Reg. 1.436-1(h)(4)(B). I'm a retirement actuary. Nothing about my comments is intended or should be construed as investment, tax, legal or accounting advice. Occasionally, but not all the time, it might be reasonable to interpret my comments as actuarial or consulting advice.
Andy the Actuary Posted March 29, 2010 Posted March 29, 2010 Could you not issue a range certification? The material provided and the opinions expressed in this post are for general informational purposes only and should not be used or relied upon as the basis for any action or inaction. You should obtain appropriate tax, legal, or other professional advice.
SoCalActuary Posted March 30, 2010 Posted March 30, 2010 1/1/2010 valuation date.2009 Aftap 63% Currently, the 2010 aftap is at 59.6% not reflected in the assets are the contributions receivable to the 2009 plan year. Can I assume the receivables will be made and issue an aftap over 60% or do I have to freeze accruals until the contributions are made and then reissue an aftap? Thanks, Andrew I say - 436 freeze applies requiring a notice then funding must be made then re-issue AFTAP cert then new notice Your other choice makes your EA status held hostage to the client actually depositing the funds. Is the risk worth it?
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