abanky Posted April 1, 2010 Posted April 1, 2010 This might be a stupid question... If the AOCI increases from the prior year is that good or bad?
david rigby Posted April 1, 2010 Posted April 1, 2010 Usually, the AOCI increase is due to an increase in the Unrecognized Net Loss (which is amortized in future years). Therefore, bad. (But, there may be other things going on.) I'm a retirement actuary. Nothing about my comments is intended or should be construed as investment, tax, legal or accounting advice. Occasionally, but not all the time, it might be reasonable to interpret my comments as actuarial or consulting advice.
abanky Posted April 1, 2010 Author Posted April 1, 2010 That's what I thought... The plan had an actuarial loss, so it reasons that it would go up. Follow up, if the plan is 100% funded (assets greater that PBO) can the transition obligation amortization go away?
david rigby Posted April 1, 2010 Posted April 1, 2010 It's not like the pre-PPA full funding limitation; no such "deemed amortization". The Transition Base, or a Prior Service Cost base, is amortized in a staight-line manner. Could be affected by FAS88, but not as you suggest. I'm a retirement actuary. Nothing about my comments is intended or should be construed as investment, tax, legal or accounting advice. Occasionally, but not all the time, it might be reasonable to interpret my comments as actuarial or consulting advice.
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