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Posted

Our administration system provides present value factors to determine lump sum benefits at various ages based interest rates and the mortality table input. The factors are calculated for AE and 417(e).

A friend who works at a plan admin firm recently sent us a copy of the questions asked on a PBGC post-termination audit. One of the questions asked for the interest rates, mortality table and age methodology used in determining lump sum distributions (age last, age nearest or interpolation).

We will be terminating a 30 participant DB as a standard termination. If a participant is 47.765 years old at the date of distribution, must we interpolate between the factors at age 47 and 48? How about just using age nearest to the nearest month? Or what about age last birthday?

The document is silent on the age methodology issue.

Thanks for any input.

Posted

Why wouldn't you simply continue the past practice that has been used to determine age (e.g., for benefit calculations)?

The material provided and the opinions expressed in this post are for general informational purposes only and should not be used or relied upon as the basis for any action or inaction. You should obtain appropriate tax, legal, or other professional advice.

Posted

We would like to, but in reading some of the past threads on this, many believe you must provide interest right up to the day the lump sum distribution is paid. If using present value factors (which is what we have been doing after PPA segment rates), this would mean interpolating. We have consistently been using attained age.

Again, the document is silent on this and we have not found anything that states you must use a specific method. Does anyone know of an authoritative source (regulation etc) that clarifies this?

Posted
We would like to, but in reading some of the past threads on this, many believe you must provide interest right up to the day the lump sum distribution is paid.

Many don't.

The material provided and the opinions expressed in this post are for general informational purposes only and should not be used or relied upon as the basis for any action or inaction. You should obtain appropriate tax, legal, or other professional advice.

Posted

I agree with Andy. Be consistent in your use of rounding and interpolation. If necessary, write it down and treat it as an administrative practice.

I'm a retirement actuary. Nothing about my comments is intended or should be construed as investment, tax, legal or accounting advice. Occasionally, but not all the time, it might be reasonable to interpret my comments as actuarial or consulting advice.

Posted
We have consistently been using attained age.

So if someone is age 49.8 are you assuming they are 49.0?

Again, the document is silent on this and we have not found anything that states you must use a specific method. Does anyone know of an authoritative source (regulation etc) that clarifies this?

Other than the 415 regs stating you use age month last, no.

"What's in the big salad?"

"Big lettuce, big carrots, tomatoes like volleyballs."

Posted

I personally would never use age last. Participants always receive a lower distribution amount almost every time under that method versus an age nearest method.

Keep in mind the 415 regs apply to 415 calculations only, but yes, what you said. So if someone was born 6/7/1950 and it's 5/5/2010, they would be 59 10/12.

Outside of 415 I personally use age nearest month. I feel that it's accurate enough to actual age without causing any timing issues that a more specific timeframe would cause.

"What's in the big salad?"

"Big lettuce, big carrots, tomatoes like volleyballs."

Posted

I agree. We will probably be using age nearest from now on.

Out of curiosity, could the IRS or PBGC (in the case of a plan termination audit) really force you to use age nearest or exact age when the plan document, code and regulations do not specify you must?

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