David Posted July 6, 2010 Posted July 6, 2010 I have a calendar year DB plan with a BOY val date. I just want to check to see if this is correct: 2008 val asset method = market 2009 val asset method = average (no IRS approval required) 2010 val can switch back to market without IRS approval. Is that correct?
Effen Posted July 7, 2010 Posted July 7, 2010 That is my understanding. You have one more "free" switch in 2010. The material provided and the opinions expressed in this post are for general informational purposes only and should not be used or relied upon as the basis for any action or inaction. You should obtain appropriate tax, legal, or other professional advice.
david rigby Posted July 7, 2010 Posted July 7, 2010 Correct. See Reg. 1.430(g)-1(f)(3). Note that Rev. Proc 2000-40 (section 3.10) provides blanket permission to change to FMV anytime. Such permission does not exist in the current reg, although it is difficult to imagine the IRS denying such request. I'm a retirement actuary. Nothing about my comments is intended or should be construed as investment, tax, legal or accounting advice. Occasionally, but not all the time, it might be reasonable to interpret my comments as actuarial or consulting advice.
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