Guest naveen Posted August 12, 2010 Posted August 12, 2010 Thanks in advance to all respondents. (Let me know if additional information is required) Corp A, 100% owned by Dr. A setup two plans - DB & 401(k) effective 01/01/2002. Plan covers Dr, his spouse and 5EEs. Dr. A establishes Corp B (100% owned by himself) beginning 2005. He and 5 EEs are paid from Corp B and his wife is paid from Corp A. I guess this is a controlled group situation and the plans must cover all EEs of both A & B. However, the Corp B did not adopt the plans sponsored by Corp. A and all reporting went on until 2008 assuming all employees were employed by Corp A. The recent DC restatement was adopted by both employers A & B. Also, earlier paln documents had provisions considering employment from related employers. In addition, deduction for employer contributions was taken on the tax returns of Corp. A. I have a few questions: 1. Is the plan a nonamender and VCP is the only correction method? 2. What is the required correction in re: on erroneous deductions?
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