JBones Posted September 20, 2010 Posted September 20, 2010 For a plan with a beginning of year valuation that had late quarterly contributions in the prior year, when determining the valuation assets for the current year, can someone confirm that the contributions made for the prior year after the current valuation date are still discounted using only the effective interest rate and no additional discount is applied for the late quarterly interest?
My 2 cents Posted September 20, 2010 Posted September 20, 2010 My understanding is as follows: For purposes of assessing the satisfaction of last year's minimum funding requirement, you would discount the contributions back to the beginning of last year (with interest penalties as necessary). For purposes of determining the assets as of the beginning of this year, you would discount any receivable amounts back to the beginning of this year using last year's effective interest rate. There would be no adjustment in that calculation to take into account the fact that some or all of the receivable contributions represented late quarterly contributions. Always check with your actuary first!
Effen Posted September 20, 2010 Posted September 20, 2010 http://benefitslink.com/boards/index.php?s...arterly+penalty The material provided and the opinions expressed in this post are for general informational purposes only and should not be used or relied upon as the basis for any action or inaction. You should obtain appropriate tax, legal, or other professional advice.
JBones Posted September 20, 2010 Author Posted September 20, 2010 I didn't see that previous post, but I guess everyone seems to agree. Thanks all.
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