Draper55 Posted October 11, 2010 Posted October 11, 2010 with an end of the year valuation(year x), when using the results to compute the following year's(x+1) aftap is the fact that contributions were late for year x immaterial for the year x+1 aftap?? in other words, the effect of late interest impacts year x funding but does not impact 436 in year x+1?
Mike Preston Posted October 12, 2010 Posted October 12, 2010 It depends. The Code doesn't have a proscription to including said contributions, but the final regs do. Hence, for years prior to 2010 you can, if you feel so inclined, count said late contribution (discounted to BOY for years after 2008, which in this case means 2009 only).
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