bzorc Posted October 20, 2010 Posted October 20, 2010 Taxpayer is getting ready to take 2010 MRD from Retirement Plan/IRA. Question is if the taxpayer decides to convert a portion of the IRA to a Roth, does the conversion satisfy the 2010 MRD requirement? I looked through the questions and do not see this addressed. Thanks for any replies.
Bird Posted October 20, 2010 Posted October 20, 2010 I say no, it's not a distribution. I think the law uses the term "distribution" but even if you take that literally, it's not eligible for rollover back in. An all-Roth account would have to physically remove money from the plan just like any other account. Ed Snyder
bzorc Posted October 20, 2010 Author Posted October 20, 2010 I think I might have misaddressed the question. What the question is if the taxpayer is going to take a portion of a traditional IRA and convert it to a Roth, they will pay taxes. Does the conversion distribution, which is subject to tax, also count towards the MRD requirement for 2010? Thanks again.
GMK Posted October 20, 2010 Posted October 20, 2010 This article: http://www.investopedia.com/articles/retir...94602&close (see Ineligible Conversions section) indicates that a Roth coversion is "technically a distribution and a rollover contribution," and since an RMD cannot be rolled over, it cannot be rolled over or converted to a Roth. Gotta take the distribution and put it in a Roth IRA, subject to contribution limits.
Guest Sieve Posted October 20, 2010 Posted October 20, 2010 Yes, it will count toward the MRD, but the portion which is the MRD cannot be converted (i.e., rolled over) to the Roth IRA. (IRC Sections 408A(d)(3)(B) & 408A(e) & 402©(4).)
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