ombskid Posted December 21, 2010 Posted December 21, 2010 An employee is eligible for the first time on 8/1/2009 for the 7/31/2010 fiscal year 401k profit sharing plan. The employee makes no salary deferral contributions. The employer makes a contribution for the employee in January 2011 for the 7/31/2010 year. Is the employee an active participant for w-2 reporting purposes for 2010?
masteff Posted December 21, 2010 Posted December 21, 2010 I'd say yes. Generally, in the case of a defined contribution plan, an individual shall be an activeparticipant if employer or employee contributions or forfeitures are allocated to such individual's account with respect to a plan year ending with or within the individual's taxable year. For example: Company B sponsors a money purchase pension plan with a plan year ending on June 30. The plan provides that contributions must be allocated as of the last day of the plan year. On December 31, 1987, an individual employed by the Company separates from service. The contribution for the plan year ending on June 30, 1988 is not made until February 15, 1989, when the Company files its corporate return. In this case, the individual is an active participant for such individual's 1988 taxable year. http://www.irs.gov/pub/irs-tege/notice87_16.pdf Kurt Vonnegut: 'To be is to do'-Socrates 'To do is to be'-Jean-Paul Sartre 'Do be do be do'-Frank Sinatra
Bird Posted December 21, 2010 Posted December 21, 2010 I'd say no, if it is purely discretionary; the next paragraph reads: A special rule applies to certain plans in which it is impossible to determine whether or not an amount (other than earnings) will be allocated to an individual's account for a given plan year. If, with respect to a particular plan year, no amount attributable to forfeitures, employer contributions or employee contributions has been allocated to an individual's account by the last day of the plan year, and contributions to the plan are purely discretionary for the plan year, such individual shall not be an active participant for the taxable year in which such plan year ends. If, however, after the end of such plan year, the employer contributes an amount for such plan year, an individual to whose account an allocation is made shall be an active participant for the taxable year in which the contribution is made. Ed Snyder
ombskid Posted December 21, 2010 Author Posted December 21, 2010 I'd say no, if it is purely discretionary; the next paragraph reads:A special rule applies to certain plans in which it is impossible to determine whether or not an amount (other than earnings) will be allocated to an individual's account for a given plan year. If, with respect to a particular plan year, no amount attributable to forfeitures, employer contributions or employee contributions has been allocated to an individual's account by the last day of the plan year, and contributions to the plan are purely discretionary for the plan year, such individual shall not be an active participant for the taxable year in which such plan year ends. If, however, after the end of such plan year, the employer contributes an amount for such plan year, an individual to whose account an allocation is made shall be an active participant for the taxable year in which the contribution is made. Thanks. I think there is something about it in Pub 590
Recommended Posts
Create an account or sign in to comment
You need to be a member in order to leave a comment
Create an account
Sign up for a new account in our community. It's easy!
Register a new accountSign in
Already have an account? Sign in here.
Sign In Now