retbenser Posted December 23, 2010 Posted December 23, 2010 For the first 10 years of plan participation, we are accruing and deducting 1/10 of the 415 $ limit (ignoring the 150% limit). This generate the large deeuctible contribution. However, assuming no COLA increase in the 415$ limit, after 10 years of participation, we will see a significant reduction in accrual since we are at the 100% 415$ limit. Is this correct? Of couse, future COLA increase in the $195,000 limit will help. Thanks for any response.
Andy the Actuary Posted December 23, 2010 Posted December 23, 2010 The plan may also have become precariously close to becoming overfunded. This is a good thing only if you are the tax man lying in wait to collect the 50% overfunding federal excise tax. As Philip Esterhous used to warn, "Be careful." The material provided and the opinions expressed in this post are for general informational purposes only and should not be used or relied upon as the basis for any action or inaction. You should obtain appropriate tax, legal, or other professional advice.
rcline46 Posted December 23, 2010 Posted December 23, 2010 Aha, you are now waking up to the wonderful fun parts of Cash Balance plans.
Effen Posted December 23, 2010 Posted December 23, 2010 Cash balance or traditional, the result is the same if you are funding the 415 max. After 10 years the primary person is fully accrued and hopefully funded so there is no reason to continue the plan. This is one place where it pays to have a good consultant who will see this approaching so the plan can be terminated at the correct time. The material provided and the opinions expressed in this post are for general informational purposes only and should not be used or relied upon as the basis for any action or inaction. You should obtain appropriate tax, legal, or other professional advice.
Calavera Posted December 23, 2010 Posted December 23, 2010 You also need to be careful with plan termination. If you submit the 5310 to the IRS, your reason for plan termination most likely would be "Other" with additional explanation as "Plan is fully funded". It may raise some questions about improper front loaded plan design that was not intended to run until retirement.
Effen Posted December 23, 2010 Posted December 23, 2010 There is nothing "improper" about front loading. It is only back loading they don't like. Besides, this isn't front loading since the benefit is accruing evenly over 10 years. The IRS shouldn't have a problem with the plan term. The material provided and the opinions expressed in this post are for general informational purposes only and should not be used or relied upon as the basis for any action or inaction. You should obtain appropriate tax, legal, or other professional advice.
david rigby Posted December 24, 2010 Posted December 24, 2010 Why terminate a plan just because it's fully funded? I'm a retirement actuary. Nothing about my comments is intended or should be construed as investment, tax, legal or accounting advice. Occasionally, but not all the time, it might be reasonable to interpret my comments as actuarial or consulting advice.
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