retbenser Posted February 10, 2011 Posted February 10, 2011 IN calculating the normal accrual rate and most valuable rate, do you take into consideration the 415 limit? For example, if formula is 10% of pay and benefit is hitting the $195,000 limit, is NAR = 10% or 0% (assuming no increase in 415 limit) Thanks for all responses.
AndyH Posted February 10, 2011 Posted February 10, 2011 Usually yes. But you can do it either way. There may be a year to year consistency requirement in 1.401(a)(4) however; you should check that if you plan to change.
retbenser Posted February 10, 2011 Author Posted February 10, 2011 Normall, yes.But you can do it either way. So NAR for HCE at 415 limt = 0% (assuming no increase in $195,000). Is that correct? Thanks.
AndyH Posted February 10, 2011 Posted February 10, 2011 Normall, yes.But you can do it either way. So NAR for HCE at 415 limt = 0% (assuming no increase in $195,000). Is that correct? Thanks. If he has fully accrued the 415 limit yes. You should read 1.401(a)(4)-3(d)(2)(B) to make sure you don't have an issue with a provision dealing with 415 increases for past employees. Not likely, but you never know.
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