Guest Golden401k Posted June 15, 2011 Posted June 15, 2011 I'm a 51% owner in Company A who sponsors a 401(k) Plan and then terminate employment and sell my ownership. I then start Company B where I'm a 51% owner and establish a 401(k) Plan. I then take my distribution from Company A 401(k) and rollover the money into Company B 401(k). Would this money be considered an unrelated rollover in Company B 401(k)? Does the answer change if I was a 100% owner in Company A and B?
masteff Posted June 16, 2011 Posted June 16, 2011 Related or unrelated for purposes of what? I'm sensing an ulterior question you're trying to answer and knowing that would help us know the context of this question. Kurt Vonnegut: 'To be is to do'-Socrates 'To do is to be'-Jean-Paul Sartre 'Do be do be do'-Frank Sinatra
Guest Golden401k Posted June 16, 2011 Posted June 16, 2011 Ultimately it effects the Top Heavy test in the plan the $$ is being rolled into. I need to make sure I'm classifying the rollover correctly.
Jim Chad Posted June 17, 2011 Posted June 17, 2011 If there is no other common ownership, either directly or indirectly, I believe they are unrelated as stated. If you were 100% owner of both companies, than the rollover would be related.
Guest Golden401k Posted June 17, 2011 Posted June 17, 2011 Are you saying I should apply the control group rules to determine if the entities are related even though the entities did not exist at the same time?
Jim Chad Posted June 17, 2011 Posted June 17, 2011 FWIW I think so. I am looking forward to hearing what others think.
masteff Posted June 21, 2011 Posted June 21, 2011 Interestingly, Reg 1.416-1 T-32 (which addresses related and unrelated rollovers) says in part: "For purposes of determining whether two employers are to be treated as the same employer, all employers aggregated under section 414(b), © or (m) are treated as the same employer." 414 takes us to code section 1563(a) which contains some timing rules. But then Reg 1.416-1 T-6 says in part: "For purposes of determining whether the plans of an employer are top-heavy for a particular plan year, the required aggregation group includes each plan of the employer in which a key employee participates in the plan year containing the determination date, or any of the four preceding plan years." But is determing "unrelated vs related" a component of the "purposes of determining whether the plans of an employer are top-heavy for a particular plan year"? Which is to say: does T-6 govern T-32 (and therefore require a 4-year lookback)? I'd say yes, so 4-year lookback. I also think if the rollover had gone to an IRA and then come into Plan B, then it would lose it's related character. Kurt Vonnegut: 'To be is to do'-Socrates 'To do is to be'-Jean-Paul Sartre 'Do be do be do'-Frank Sinatra
PensionPro Posted June 21, 2011 Posted June 21, 2011 Are you saying I should apply the control group rules to determine if the entities are related even though the entities did not exist at the same time? The operation of section 414(b), © and (m) and the regulations thereunder necessarily require that controlled group members exist concurrently. However, also see post # 9 of this thread: http://benefitslink.com/boards/index.php?showtopic=8553 PensionPro, CPC, TGPC
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