Revenue Sharing Agreements

[kwalified]

It seems that RSA money has become more prevalent in the last few years. Correct me if I am wrong, but I am of the opinion that RSA came into existence as a way for Investement Dealers to entice TPA's to encourage plan sponsor's to consider moving their investments. It was also a way to solidify a relationship between a TPA and the Investment Provider. Therefore, why are some TPA's using RSA funds as credits towards plan admin expenses? It seems as if many IP's refuse to speak to the plan sponsors and will only communicate with the TPA on plan matters therefore creating more work for the TPA. Yes or No? Now with 408(b)2 why can't the IP's just give the little bit of money, (I am talking Micro Plan) from the RSA's directly to the plan and circumvent the TPA, if the TPA is going to do it anyway? Seems that it would save the TPA some disclosure effort.