rocknrolls2 Posted March 5, 2012 Posted March 5, 2012 Let's assume an employer has a final average pay defined benefit plan. There is a one-year of service eligibility requirement. If the employer amends the plan to provide that participants initially hired after, say 12/31/2012, are no longer eligible, is a 204(h) notice required in that situation? Notice that the amendment would not apply to employees who have not yet completed the one-year of service requirement when the amendment becomes effective.
david rigby Posted March 6, 2012 Posted March 6, 2012 To whom would you send such a notice? I'm a retirement actuary. Nothing about my comments is intended or should be construed as investment, tax, legal or accounting advice. Occasionally, but not all the time, it might be reasonable to interpret my comments as actuarial or consulting advice.
Guest Sieve Posted March 19, 2012 Posted March 19, 2012 Look at Treas. Reg. Sections 54.4980F-1, Q&A-1(a) & Q&A-10(b) & Q&A-10(f)(1).
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