Gary Posted May 16, 2012 Posted May 16, 2012 a husband and wife plan. They employed their daughter from 2006 through 2009. they want to amend plan such that a year of service requires only 50 hours instead of 1000. and this amendment is effective 1/1/2008 (adopted in restated egtrra plan). the intent of the amendment is to have daughter enter plan 1/1/08, receive accruals from 2008 and reflect in 2011 valuation. i am thinking that the amendment (or actually plan provision in restatde plan) should specify that the provision also applies to former employees, otherwise I am not sure if it would apply to a former employee who previously left without entering the plan. thoughts? thanks
frizzyguy Posted May 16, 2012 Posted May 16, 2012 Before wheel spinning commences, were their past employees? Depending on that, I have more questions. IMHO
Gary Posted May 17, 2012 Author Posted May 17, 2012 no, the only past employee was the daughter and a son worked for two months so he would never enter plan. thanks
frizzyguy Posted May 18, 2012 Posted May 18, 2012 Then I wouldn't worry too much about it. Amendments can't be discriminatory but because they're all HCE's, in my opinion go nuts. If you want to include them, include them. IMHO
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