Belgarath Posted October 10, 2012 Posted October 10, 2012 Every time an answer seems obvious to me, that's when I get nervous that I'm missing something! Here's the situation. Employer sponsors a deferral only 401(k) plan (or even if they had a match, for that matter). Currently there is no employer profit sharing contribution provided for under the plan. They MAY want to amend the plan to provide for an employer contribution for only 2 NHC. There would NOT be any PS contribution for any HC, and not for any other NHC either. So after you disaggregate the plans, you are just testing the PS, on an ALLOCATIONS basis - no cross testing, no gateway. Since no HC receives a contribution, then you automatically pass the rate group testing using the ratio test, right? Am I suffering from brain cramp and missing something?
Tom Poje Posted October 10, 2012 Posted October 10, 2012 I don't think you even have to go that far. Under the safe harbor provisions arguably you have 1 formula for HCEs and 1 for NHCEs so you fall under the multiple formula rule under 1.401(a)(4)-2(b)(vi)(D)(2) A formula does not fail to be available on the same terms to all employees merely because the formula is not available to any HCE. or 1.401(a)(4)-2(b)(vi)© A formula that is available soley to some or all NHCES is deemed to satisfy... or 1.401(a)(4)-2(b)(v) The allocations provided to the HCEs is less than the allocation that would otherwise be provided but yes, you would pass the ratio test because no HCE benefits. sort of like testing an integrated plan (e.g. 5.7%) on an allocation basis and imputing disparity. yes, an integrated formula is safe harbor, but if you were to test everyoe would have the same allocation rate anyway.
Recommended Posts
Create an account or sign in to comment
You need to be a member in order to leave a comment
Create an account
Sign up for a new account in our community. It's easy!
Register a new accountSign in
Already have an account? Sign in here.
Sign In Now