Guest jyates Posted January 19, 1999 Posted January 19, 1999 If an employer has a standard defined benefit pension plan and wishes to convert the plan to a cash balance plan, is there any 411(d)(6) concerns with reducing an accrued benefit if the employer provides each participant with an opening balance in the cash balance plan equal to the present value of the prior plan's accrued benefit in accordance with 417(e)? Is there ever a concern that by converting the prior plan benefit to a present value sum, and later, when the employee is ready to retire under the cash balance plan, reconverting the sum back to an annuity, that the benefit might be reduced? Also, when converting to cash balance, can the employer eliminate early retirement benefits?
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