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Posted

We discovered 6 employees on a client's 2012 census who deferred to the 401(k), had never been listed in prior years and had hire dates going back to the 1990's. We found that these were employees from a company they purchased effective 10/01/12 and they gave them credit for service with the prior company so they could participate in the plan.

1) Can they adopt an amendment now, retroactive to 10/01/12 allowing prior service with previous employer for eligibility and vesting purposes?

2) If they cannot adopt a retroactive amendment, and short of returning deferrals to them as a mistake of fact, can anyone suggest any other solutions?

Posted

...they gave them credit for service with the prior company so they could participate in the plan.

Who is "they" and what does "gave" mean? For example, if there is written Board action, then you may already have the proper authorization (although may not yet have completed the formal plan amendment).

I'm a retirement actuary. Nothing about my comments is intended or should be construed as investment, tax, legal or accounting advice. Occasionally, but not all the time, it might be reasonable to interpret my comments as actuarial or consulting advice.

Posted

It was an asset purchase. So how do we give the newly hired employees credit for prior service? Board resolution? Plan amendment? Some other means?

Posted

Assuming the plan was not also acquired, an amendment to the plan document. Most documents provide flexibility in what the credit is for. For example, eligibility but not vesting.

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