Santo Gold Posted May 14, 2013 Posted May 14, 2013 Company A is owned by Mr. X (40%), Mr. Y (40%) and Mr. Z (20%) Company A owns 50% of several other companies. The other 50% ownership of these other companies are comprised of individuals or organizations not affiliated with Mr. X, Y or Z. Given this, then there shoud not be any controlled groups between Co A, X,Y,or Z, and these other companies, correct? Thanks very much.
ETA Consulting LLC Posted May 14, 2013 Posted May 14, 2013 On the surface, you are correct. Attribution and excludable shares may run pretty deep. From a straight numerical perspective, you are correct. It also doesn't address Affiliated Service Groups. But, I agree with your analysis. Good Luck! CPC, QPA, QKA, TGPC, ERPA
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