Jump to content

Recommended Posts

Guest jvgatty
Posted

Hi all,

I have a CB plan that wants to terminate. If they were to terminate today, there would be $53,000 in excess assets (approximately) above accrued benefits.

The FA suggested that we use the excess assets to pay plan expenses which were previously paid by and deducted by the plan sponsor.

I was certain that there were problems with this, but I am not finding anything that suggests this is a problem.

Am I off base here? Is this a legitimate way to absorb the excess assets or are there problems with this plan?

Thanks in advance for any and all insight.

Posted

Any room to increase the benefit to absorb the excess?

w/r/t expenses, you may be able to use excess for paying current year expenses, but it might be problematic to go back to prior years. But ask the plan's attorney.

If all else fails, I'm willing to be a plan participant to help you use up the excess.

I'm a retirement actuary. Nothing about my comments is intended or should be construed as investment, tax, legal or accounting advice. Occasionally, but not all the time, it might be reasonable to interpret my comments as actuarial or consulting advice.

Posted

Hmmm - assuming the plan states that administrative expenses are an obligation of the plan unless paid by the plan sponsor, (or something to that effect) I agree that current allowable administrative expenses should be fine - taking into account the settlor/non-settlor expenses as permitted under current guidance.

I'd be pretty leery about the reimbursement of the employer for prior expenses. Might these prior expenses then be considered a loan from the Plan Sponsor to the plan, and therefore a PT? I also agree with David that the Attorney should make this call.

Can they establish a PS plan to use up the excess assets in subsequent years?

Posted

Quick - someone help out John. I think Ned Ryerson has taken over his handle. :lol:

The material provided and the opinions expressed in this post are for general informational purposes only and should not be used or relied upon as the basis for any action or inaction. You should obtain appropriate tax, legal, or other professional advice.

Posted

I will assume that the plan document permits the plan to pay plan expenses. However, it would probably be a prohibited transaction to reimburse the employer for expenses incurred long ago, at least in the view of the DOL. You can reach this conclusion by looking at the preamble to the current version of the Class Exemption permitting short term loans by a party in interest to a plan. May also be an exclusive benefit problem under Section 401(a)(2).

Create an account or sign in to comment

You need to be a member in order to leave a comment

Create an account

Sign up for a new account in our community. It's easy!

Register a new account

Sign in

Already have an account? Sign in here.

Sign In Now
×
×
  • Create New...

Important Information

Terms of Use