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Posted

For a plan with an end of year valuation date, would the:

1) funding target be end of year present value of the BOY liability?

2) target normal cost be the end of year present value of the accrual during the year?

3) AFTAP include the funding target and the target normal cost in the denominator?

I saw an SB that included the funding target and the target normal cost in the denominator for the AFTAP, but not for the FTAP. Is this a mistake?

Any help would be appreciated!

Posted

I don't think that there are regulations for EOY valuations reagrding this yet, but all of the examples that I have seen so far use

FT + TNC = Liability

AVA + Cont discounted for interest - Balances using actual ROR = Assets

AFTAP = Asset/Liability

FTAP = (AVA - Balances using EIR)/FT

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