Pension RC Posted August 11, 2013 Posted August 11, 2013 For a plan with an end of year valuation date, would the: 1) funding target be end of year present value of the BOY liability? 2) target normal cost be the end of year present value of the accrual during the year? 3) AFTAP include the funding target and the target normal cost in the denominator? I saw an SB that included the funding target and the target normal cost in the denominator for the AFTAP, but not for the FTAP. Is this a mistake? Any help would be appreciated!
Calavera Posted August 12, 2013 Posted August 12, 2013 I believe it is correct and in accordance with the Sch SB instruction. Note that for the AFTAP the Asset in nominator should be increased by contributions for the current plan year. See the following for more details: http://www.ccactuaries.org/opportunities/ea2013/onsite/302.pdf
Hojo Posted August 13, 2013 Posted August 13, 2013 I don't think that there are regulations for EOY valuations reagrding this yet, but all of the examples that I have seen so far use FT + TNC = Liability AVA + Cont discounted for interest - Balances using actual ROR = Assets AFTAP = Asset/Liability FTAP = (AVA - Balances using EIR)/FT
Recommended Posts
Create an account or sign in to comment
You need to be a member in order to leave a comment
Create an account
Sign up for a new account in our community. It's easy!
Register a new accountSign in
Already have an account? Sign in here.
Sign In Now