dmb Posted August 30, 2013 Posted August 30, 2013 So my x-testing skills are a little rusty. In a 401k plan, Is it possible for the ebar for the ABPT to be lower than the ebar for only the employer base contribution? Maybe if there is no service requirement for the 041k portion and a year of service requirement for the base portion and the base is allocated on comp from entry date? Maybe for someone who entered during the year? Any help would be appreciated. Thanks.
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