Dougsbpc Posted December 6, 2013 Posted December 6, 2013 Suppose a traditional DB plan provides nhces a benefit of .5% of average salary. The employer also sponsors a 401(k) plan. Could the 401(k) plan provide nhces with a 6.5% mandatory employer contribution in the 401(k) plan and meet the minimum gateway? It seems that a DB benefit is generally worth more than twice a DC contribution. The logic being a 5% top heavy minimum in a DC plan is equivalent to a 2% top heavy minimum benefit in a DB plan. Thanks
Effen Posted December 6, 2013 Posted December 6, 2013 I am not sure exactly what you are asking, but you cannot just add the .5% db accrual to the 6.5% dc contribution and say it is worth 7% gateway contribution. You need to convert the .5% db into a dc like contribution before adding it to the 6.5% dc contribution to see if it satisfies the gateway. There is also averaging that can be used that is often helpful. The material provided and the opinions expressed in this post are for general informational purposes only and should not be used or relied upon as the basis for any action or inaction. You should obtain appropriate tax, legal, or other professional advice.
AndyH Posted December 6, 2013 Posted December 6, 2013 And the present value of the db benefit for gateway purposes must use the testing assumptions, which include the use of an interest rate between 7.5% and 8.50%, i.e. a "standard" interest rate.
Rball4 Posted December 6, 2013 Posted December 6, 2013 level of gateway needed also depends on max HCE's benefit.
ac Posted May 19, 2014 Posted May 19, 2014 If the participant's average annual compensation is $3,000 per month, his age is 43, normal retirement age is 65 and testing assumptions are 8.5% pre, 8.5% post and 71 GAM-Male, the calculation of the Equivalent Contribution Rate is: .005 x $3,000 x 94.79854 x (1/1.085^22) / "Plan Compensation for Plan Year" = Equivalent Contribution Rate In calculating the Equivalent Contribution Rate, is it possible to use 3-year average compensation for the "Plan Compensation for Plan Year". Since average annual compensation is based on a 3-year average, it seems you should be able to.
david rigby Posted May 19, 2014 Posted May 19, 2014 It seems that a DB benefit is generally worth more than twice a DC contribution. The logic being a 5% top heavy minimum in a DC plan is equivalent to a 2% top heavy minimum benefit in a DB plan. I'm not comfortable with that generalization. I'm a retirement actuary. Nothing about my comments is intended or should be construed as investment, tax, legal or accounting advice. Occasionally, but not all the time, it might be reasonable to interpret my comments as actuarial or consulting advice.
AndyH Posted May 19, 2014 Posted May 19, 2014 If the participant's average annual compensation is $3,000 per month, his age is 43, normal retirement age is 65 and testing assumptions are 8.5% pre, 8.5% post and 71 GAM-Male, the calculation of the Equivalent Contribution Rate is: .005 x $3,000 x 94.79854 x (1/1.085^22) / "Plan Compensation for Plan Year" = Equivalent Contribution Rate In calculating the Equivalent Contribution Rate, is it possible to use 3-year average compensation for the "Plan Compensation for Plan Year". Since average annual compensation is based on a 3-year average, it seems you should be able to. I'm not following the question. For what purpose? Are you talking about the gateway? the .5% for 401(a)(26)? Oh, maybe the question is about "Plan Year Compensation"? If so, that is specifically defined as current year. Definition is in 1.401(a)(4)-12
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