Pension RC Posted January 9, 2014 Posted January 9, 2014 The SB instructions state that "minimum funding standards apply until the end of the plan year that includes the termination date." Is this true for a plan that terminates on the first of the year, where, clearly, the minimum funding requirement will be $0? Any help would be appreciated!
david rigby Posted January 9, 2014 Posted January 9, 2014 IMHO, yes, the minimum funding standards apply for 2014 (for example), if your DOPT is 01/01/2014 (for example). (Zero minimum is not the same as "funding standards don't apply".) I'm a retirement actuary. Nothing about my comments is intended or should be construed as investment, tax, legal or accounting advice. Occasionally, but not all the time, it might be reasonable to interpret my comments as actuarial or consulting advice.
frizzyguy Posted January 27, 2014 Posted January 27, 2014 Can I ask a dumb question? (Too bad, I'm doing it anyway.) Why is it "clear" that the minimum is going to be zero? I am saying this because I agree with David (not that my opinion really means a whole lot but I trust Mr. Rigby) and you should definitely make sure the required funding is actually $0. I think you could make the argument that the intention was for the client to not have required funding limits apply if the amendment was created and signed in 2013 but if that's the case you should have used a 12/31 termination date. The safe answer though, is of course, that they apply. IMHO
Hojo Posted January 28, 2014 Posted January 28, 2014 Can I ask a dumb question? (Too bad, I'm doing it anyway.) Why is it "clear" that the minimum is going to be zero? I am saying this because I agree with David (not that my opinion really means a whole lot but I trust Mr. Rigby) and you should definitely make sure the required funding is actually $0. I think you could make the argument that the intention was for the client to not have required funding limits apply if the amendment was created and signed in 2013 but if that's the case you should have used a 12/31 termination date. The safe answer though, is of course, that they apply. My guess (and it's only a guess) is that the plan is already frozen so no normal cost and the plan is obviously overfunded on a funding basis so you know that there will be excess assets for valuation purposes (even if they are not overfunded when it comes to paying out lump sums) thus no minimum funding. I have many clients in this situation.
frizzyguy Posted February 5, 2014 Posted February 5, 2014 I totally agree Hojo, I guess I was just trying to prove a point rather than just saying what I was thinking. I just wanted to be clear that if you have to file an SB, you should probably do a valuation. That's all. IMHO
Effen Posted February 5, 2014 Posted February 5, 2014 I think I am coming around with Frizzy, why does RC say,"where, clearly, the minimum funding requirement will be $0?s", and Hojo say, "the plan is obviously over funded on a funding basis so you know that there will be excess assets for valuation purposes". Just because it terminated doesn't mean it is over funded. The plan could be underfunded, in which case you could have a required contribution for the one day the plan year, couldn't it? The material provided and the opinions expressed in this post are for general informational purposes only and should not be used or relied upon as the basis for any action or inaction. You should obtain appropriate tax, legal, or other professional advice.
Rball4 Posted February 5, 2014 Posted February 5, 2014 My main question is why are they terminating on the first day of the year, when they could have just done it one day prior (the last day of the prior plan year)?
Effen Posted February 5, 2014 Posted February 5, 2014 Well, ya, but I just assumed it was some broker type who just didn't know any better did that. The material provided and the opinions expressed in this post are for general informational purposes only and should not be used or relied upon as the basis for any action or inaction. You should obtain appropriate tax, legal, or other professional advice.
Hojo Posted February 6, 2014 Posted February 6, 2014 I think I am coming around with Frizzy, why does RC say,"where, clearly, the minimum funding requirement will be $0?s", and Hojo say, "the plan is obviously over funded on a funding basis so you know that there will be excess assets for valuation purposes". Just because it terminated doesn't mean it is over funded. The plan could be underfunded, in which case you could have a required contribution for the one day the plan year, couldn't it? Of course it COULD be underfunded. I was just saying that based on the OP's statement that it was probably well overfunded and no minimum was going to apply. Didn't want to make it more difficult than it needed to be.
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