Pension RC Posted March 20, 2014 Posted March 20, 2014 A one-man plan has always had an AFTAP over 100%. However, the 2013 AFTAP wasn't certified and, shortly thereafter, the plan was terminated and the one-man received a lump sum distribution. Was that lump sum in violation of 436, since the AFTAP was deemed to be less than 60%, or is a plan termination different? Thanks!
Effen Posted March 20, 2014 Posted March 20, 2014 The instant he paid the distribution as a result of the plan termination, the 436 rules ceased to apply. Up until that point, the lump sum was prohibited. Kind of meaningless in a one-life plan, but he was not allowed to receive a lump sum until he paid it, then it was ok because it was paid as a result of the plan's termination. The material provided and the opinions expressed in this post are for general informational purposes only and should not be used or relied upon as the basis for any action or inaction. You should obtain appropriate tax, legal, or other professional advice.
Andy the Actuary Posted March 20, 2014 Posted March 20, 2014 It's important to note that accruals cease under 436 if AFTAP < 60% so should check applicability of this point to your situation. Check this out: Assuming calendar year and 2012 AFTAP>100%, lump sums could be paid without restriction until 9/30/2013 which would have been point where deemed <60% because of no certification. The material provided and the opinions expressed in this post are for general informational purposes only and should not be used or relied upon as the basis for any action or inaction. You should obtain appropriate tax, legal, or other professional advice.
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