Cloudy Posted January 9, 2015 Posted January 9, 2015 Looking at a takeover CB/DC plan. The CB has immediate entry, 0 hour req for a pay credit, 1000 hours for vesting. The owners get a large pay credit and the rank and file get a flat $1000 pay credit. So you have employees with very low compensation getting a very high testing EBAR (and in fact they may never get a benefit from the plan due to the vesting schedule). My personal feeling is that using these low paid employees to help pass nondiscrimination testing is too aggressive.Opinions?
My 2 cents Posted January 9, 2015 Posted January 9, 2015 Irrespective of what one's views may be concerning plans of this sort, isn't giving enough to the low paid employees to pass nondiscrimination the entire idea behind benefit structures like this? Always check with your actuary first!
Tom Poje Posted January 9, 2015 Posted January 9, 2015 years ago the IRS issued a memorandum on using (in the IRS terms) such a "scheme" especially if these folks never vest. I'd say you have a reason for concern if all NHCEs 'benefit' it might pass a smell test, though the fact, if indeed you are talking about 0 hours to receive but 1000 hours to vest sounds like these folks never truly benefit. short term employees.pdf
david rigby Posted January 9, 2015 Posted January 9, 2015 Ah, the controversial "Carol Gold memo". Does anyone treat it as authority? BTW, a claim that "NHCEs may never vest" is pretty silly, since that applies to every plan. I'm a retirement actuary. Nothing about my comments is intended or should be construed as investment, tax, legal or accounting advice. Occasionally, but not all the time, it might be reasonable to interpret my comments as actuarial or consulting advice.
Tom Poje Posted January 9, 2015 Posted January 9, 2015 probably the same employees who "don't need to be covered" under Obamacare because they will never work "that many hours", but then the company wants to use them to support the DB/DC plan. we want our cake and eat it too. K2retire 1
Kevin C Posted January 9, 2015 Posted January 9, 2015 Maybe I'm reading too much into the original post, but I don't read it as saying they are providing the flat $1,000 pay credit only to a select group of lower paid employees. If all of the rank and file who have met the age and service requirements and reached the entry date are receiving the $1,000 credit, that isn't the situation discussed in the Gold memo. Regardless of whether you think the memo has any merit, it shouldn't affect the discussion if the memo doesn't apply to the situation under discussion. From the memo: For example, the nondiscrimination requirement is violated by a plan design that satisfies the nondiscrimination general test by using cross-testing under §1.401(a)(4)-8 where (1) the plan excludes most or all permanent nonhighly compensated employees, (2) the plan covers a group of nonhighly compensated employees who were hired temporarily for short periods of time, (3) the plan allocates a higher percentage of compensation to the accounts of the highly compensated employees than to those of the nonhighly compensated employees covered by the plan, and (4) the compensation earned by the nonhighly compensated employees covered by the plan is significantly less than the compensation earned by the nonhighly compensated employees not covered by the plan. If the plan excludes most of the NHCEs except those with low comp or short service, then it's time to discuss whether the memo has any authority and whether it applies. John Feldt ERPA CPC QPA 1
John Feldt ERPA CPC QPA Posted January 9, 2015 Posted January 9, 2015 Correct, the Gold memo indicates that a document written to exclude primarily full time staff from the plan (thus covering primarily short-service employees) violates the "spirit" of the regulations. I think the Carol Gold memo is indicating that the mathematical tests used and dictated by Treasury Regulation 1.401(a)(4)-1(a) are sometimes not applicable even though it says "This section sets forth the exclusive rules ..." and that instead, Treasury Regulation 1.401(a)(4)-1(c )(2) can override such exclusive mathematical rules as it says "The provisions of [401(a)(4)] must be interpreted in a reasonable manner ..." Now I would have thought that the mathematics of an exclusive rule was not subject to any interpretation (unless perhaps it's 'new math' being used), but 1.401(a)(4)-1(c )(2) is written right in there. Maybe we just call it the "gotcha" clause.
Mike Preston Posted January 11, 2015 Posted January 11, 2015 John, I'm in disagreement with your characterization. I won't belabor the point but to the extent the rules are clear and unambiguous I don't think 1©(2) has any impact and is not to be used by the IRS to justify an attack on a non-discrimination test done in good faith. The Carol Gold memo and the Paul Shultz (sp?) memo provide the only exceptions. The key point is that without a documented exception like the memos referenced I don't believe the IRS will attempt to invoke 1©(2) to invalidate a test that is otherwise done in conformance with the unambiguous rules of (a)(4)/10(b), etc.
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