Belgarath Posted February 3, 2015 Posted February 3, 2015 If a client has a SEP, or a SIMPLE-IRA, and they freeze/"terminate" it and set up a new 401(k). do you: a. Assign plan #001 to the 401(k), or b. Consider the prior SEP or SIMPLE-IRA as plan #001, and assign the 401(k) plan #002? I do actually have a reason for asking this: in the VCP procedure for correcting a SIMPLE-IRA, the Appendix asks for the plan #, and I would normally have used option #1 above.
Flyboyjohn Posted February 3, 2015 Posted February 3, 2015 My vote is for option 1 and put "N/A" as the plan number for the predecessor SEP or SIMPLE "program
Belgarath Posted February 3, 2015 Author Posted February 3, 2015 It would have helped if I had read the instructions for the darned thing first. From the instructions:"If your plan is a SEP, SARSEP, or SIMPLE IRA, leave this line blank."
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