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Posted

If a client has a SEP, or a SIMPLE-IRA, and they freeze/"terminate" it and set up a new 401(k). do you:

a. Assign plan #001 to the 401(k), or

b. Consider the prior SEP or SIMPLE-IRA as plan #001, and assign the 401(k) plan #002?

I do actually have a reason for asking this: in the VCP procedure for correcting a SIMPLE-IRA, the Appendix asks for the plan #, and I would normally have used option #1 above.

Posted

It would have helped if I had read the instructions for the darned thing first. From the instructions:


"If your plan is a SEP, SARSEP, or SIMPLE IRA, leave this line blank."

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