Young Curmudgeon Posted January 28, 2016 Posted January 28, 2016 I have a prospective client who wants a Profit Sharing plan so they can roll IRAs into in and borrow. I am sure that I have read that this practice is frowned upon and the IRS can claim the plan is not qualified since the intent never existed to make contributions. I can not find anything that states this now. Is this just early dementia or does anyone recall where this position may have been published?
Belgarath Posted January 28, 2016 Posted January 28, 2016 I don't recall anything official published by the IRS on this, although maybe there was and I've also forgotten. But I think the concern may be based upon 1.401-1(b)(2) which requires "recurring and substantial contributions."
Recommended Posts
Create an account or sign in to comment
You need to be a member in order to leave a comment
Create an account
Sign up for a new account in our community. It's easy!
Register a new accountSign in
Already have an account? Sign in here.
Sign In Now