Belgarath Posted April 4, 2016 Posted April 4, 2016 Suppose a corporation has a 401k, but never makes any contributions to it - this is an additional twist on a question from last week. Plan established only to allow a participant loan for owner, from funds rolled in from another plan. Employees eligible, but never notified. NOT a safe harbor plan. Please ignore the qualification implications of the above for purposes of this question. Client in a subsequent year establishes a SEP. Let us assume for the moment that is a prototype SEP, and not an IRS model SEP. Client makes a contribution to the SEP for a given year. Under the terms of the SEP, he is the only one eligible (3 year eligibility) - BUT, since the plans are aggregated for TH purposes, doesn't this trigger a contribution requirement in the 401k plan? Or am I dreaming? P.S. - poll question - I've never actually heard of this being a problem raised on audit - anyone ever encountered a situation in real life like this? If you start a new 401(k) plan for an employer who freezes a SEP after the prior year, do you always get all the SEP contribution/account balance data for all prior years when determining TH status for the new 401k?
Lou S. Posted April 4, 2016 Posted April 4, 2016 TH minimum required for 401(k), no question about it.
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