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Posted

I am working on a terminating DB plan. The plan is vague when it comes to age to 417(e) purposes. From what I've read, it appears that, if a certain age methodology was used for calculating lump sums (such as years and months) while the plan was active, then changing it to anything else to pay termination lump sums would be a 411(d)6 violation. Would you agree? Is there an argument to the contrary?

Thanks!!

Posted

Consistency in administrative practices is a good practice.

If the proposed change would benefit NHCEs, that might be a good argument in favor of a change.

I'm a retirement actuary. Nothing about my comments is intended or should be construed as investment, tax, legal or accounting advice. Occasionally, but not all the time, it might be reasonable to interpret my comments as actuarial or consulting advice.

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