RatherBeGolfing Posted January 18, 2017 Posted January 18, 2017 Dr. Payne owns 100% of Payne PLLC ( A ) Dr. Aichen owns 100% of Aichen PLLC (B) Aichen Payne PLLC (C) is owned by A & B A owns 60% of C B owns 40% of C Per attribution, I would say that Dr. Payne owns 60% of C and Dr. Aichen owns 40% C. Dr. Payne also owns 100% of another practice and is considering his financial advisor wants to install a 401(k) plan. The advisor has been told (supposedly by a lawyer) that because the doctors as individuals own 100% of their PLLC's which own their shares of C, they have a controlled group. I have asked for the exact wording of the opinion, but I just don't see a CG issue here. Am I missing something?
Belgarath Posted January 18, 2017 Posted January 18, 2017 I guess that makes two of us. I don't see it either.
Calavera Posted January 18, 2017 Posted January 18, 2017 Maybe they have some kind of ASG but not CG.
RatherBeGolfing Posted January 18, 2017 Author Posted January 18, 2017 21 minutes ago, Belgarath said: I guess that makes two of us. I don't see it either. 2 minutes ago, Calavera said: Maybe they have some kind of ASG but not CG. Thanks. I'm thinking the opinion has something about ASG in it and the advisor is getting his terminology mixed up.
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