Belgarath Posted March 7, 2017 Posted March 7, 2017 Just curious as to how people generally handle this in real life. Suppose you have Corporation A, which sponsors a plan. Plan passes all testing just fine, and employer doesn't want any changes whatsoever. Owner is also 100% owner of Corporation B. No employees other than the owner. No Plan, and doesn't want to adopt Plan of Corporation A as a participating employer. Assume document properly reflects existence of CG, but related employer (Corp B) doesn't adopt the Plan of Corp A as a participating employer. Although you technically have to consider compensation for the owner from Corporation B for 415 comp, nondiscrimination testing, etc. - would you bother to ask for it, particularly if the employer doesn't really want to give it? Since it could only HELP passing testing, which already passes, would you ignore?
Tom Poje Posted March 7, 2017 Posted March 7, 2017 well if the plan already passes then as you said, increasing comp would only help. I think I would simply note things somewhere. "close enough for govt work" e.g. under the top heavy rules T-39 (1.416-1) Must ratios be computed each year to determine if plan is top heavy? No.....precise top-heavy ratios need not be computed each year.. so you just aren't being 'precise'. yes, even you, Belgareth. duckthing 1
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