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Posted

Agree, I definitely would not do that.  You are stretching to the maximum 15% MVAR range, how is that not significantly higher?

Also, in all the past sessions I remember attending, the presenter said you never an HCE at the top of the group, or certainly not at the top of the top group. 

Kenneth M. Prell, CEBS, ERPA

Vice President, BPAS Actuarial & Pension Services

kprell@bpas.com

Posted
On 2/2/2023 at 3:16 PM, truphao said:

That is the essence of my question.  How do practitioners interpret "significantly" in that context?  

Well, one IRS memo says you have to consider "intent" but of course 401(a)(4) itself says to adher strictly to the mathematics. So, mathematically, 5% is significant, therefore keep it below 4.99%.

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