Jakyasar Posted November 21, 2024 Posted November 21, 2024 Hi Looking at a take over. Interest crediting period is determined on a pro rata basis upon termination. If I want to amend it to zero i.e. no adjustment until year, is this 411d6 issue? Thanks
John Feldt ERPA CPC QPA Posted November 21, 2024 Posted November 21, 2024 Seems like it is to me. Bri and Lou S. 2
truphao Posted November 21, 2024 Posted November 21, 2024 agree. Furthermore, althouth it is legal not to give an interest credit until the end of the year, as an actuary I have an issue with that. Seems like a loss of "economic value" to me, and I do not like it; we normally use a "pro-rata" approach. Lou S. and Effen 2
Jakyasar Posted November 21, 2024 Author Posted November 21, 2024 Truphao, I understand your position but it is approved by the IRS i.e. in the plan document as pre-approved. This is a different discussion though. Thank you both for your comments.
Bri Posted November 21, 2024 Posted November 21, 2024 Are you looking to change how to pro-rate excess assets upon PLAN termination, or is it a case where you're looking to only pay the 12/31/23 hypothetical account balances and not 11 months' worth of the interest crediting rate for 2024 (for the participant's termination of employment)? Hojo 1
Jakyasar Posted November 22, 2024 Author Posted November 22, 2024 Neither, looking to amend the plan effective 1/1/2025 and switch to no pro-rata
Effen Posted November 22, 2024 Posted November 22, 2024 I agree with John - I think switching an active plan from "pro-rata" to "no pro-rata" would be a 411d(6) violation. And, FWIW, I agree with Truphao that I don't understand why the IRS has permitted "no pro-rata" as it is clearly a reduction in the accrued benefit during the year, but I acknowledge they do permit it. truphao 1 The material provided and the opinions expressed in this post are for general informational purposes only and should not be used or relied upon as the basis for any action or inaction. You should obtain appropriate tax, legal, or other professional advice.
Jakyasar Posted November 22, 2024 Author Posted November 22, 2024 I think IRS allowed it because the account balance does not go down (referring only to fixed rate) and they did not calculate how it would affect the monthly accrued benefit itself, just thinking out loud. Non pro-rata is in various documents that I have seen so it is valid and kosher, at least per IRS pre-approved documents. Different actuaries may have different opinions but as long as the document provisions are followed and applied, that is life, fair or not. Thank you all for chiming in for the 411d6 issue
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