SSRRS Posted August 7 Posted August 7 Hi, I know that almost all DB plans provide that the 3 highest salary years for the salsry average must be consecutive. However, is it allowed to provide for the salary average to be any 3 highest years, even if not consecutive. A bit generous, but for an owner only plan it might be preferred? It appears that if not consecutive the it creates a definitely determinable issue? Thank you
david rigby Posted August 8 Posted August 8 In my 40+ years, I've probably seen one or two plans that permit non-consecutive years in the FAC definition. Sorry, don't remember any of the details. Is it allowed? Of course. Is it wise? Probably yes for an owner-only plan. Caution don't forget about the 415 definition(s). Bri, acm_acm and SSRRS 3 I'm a retirement actuary. Nothing about my comments is intended or should be construed as investment, tax, legal or accounting advice. Occasionally, but not all the time, it might be reasonable to interpret my comments as actuarial or consulting advice.
SSRRS Posted August 8 Author Posted August 8 Thank you David, as always, your knowledge and experience is much appreciated. I just don't understand, if it's allowed, why don't owner only plans include this non consecutive allowance?
Bri Posted August 8 Posted August 8 I would suspect it's indeed the 415 issue, if the plan's aggressively maxing the owner out anyway. SSRRS and acm_acm 2
truphao Posted August 8 Posted August 8 usually plan's formula for oner-only plan is 10% of AAC (415 limit formula). Thus, there is no need to complicate things. SSRRS and acm_acm 2
Effen Posted August 8 Posted August 8 You can use a non-consecutive year average to determine the plan benefit. You can really use whatever you want, even a 1 year "average", however, the maximum 415 limit is still based on a highest 3-consecutive year average. Since the 415 maximum limits the benefit, most tax-shelter plans just use that for plan definition. I see highest 3 In the non-tax shelter world. I have several bargained plans that use a non-consecutive average. I don't like it in that setting because it leads to "spiking", where a person works a lot of overtime in a year, then coasts a few years. Lou S., acm_acm and CuseFan 3 The material provided and the opinions expressed in this post are for general informational purposes only and should not be used or relied upon as the basis for any action or inaction. You should obtain appropriate tax, legal, or other professional advice.
CuseFan Posted August 8 Posted August 8 Effen is correct - for benefit determination you need not use consecutive but for 415 FAE hi-3 it must be. Also, and this applies to traditional plans with employees that are integrated with social security, you lose 401(l) safe harbor if you use average of non-consecutive years. We took over a plan where prior actuary amended for non-consecutive years for the client (via an "end around" on the AA) but never told them their safe harbor design went away and they needed to general test. SSRRS, John Feldt ERPA CPC QPA and Bri 3 Kenneth M. Prell, CEBS, ERPA Vice President, BPAS Actuarial & Pension Services kprell@bpas.com
SSRRS Posted August 13 Author Posted August 13 Thank you very much, again, CuseFan, Effen, truphao, bri and David.
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