Egold Posted September 12 Posted September 12 I have an overfunded DB plan. Distributions will be made in October. Two Participants are over 73 and are required to take RMD. If all participants choose a lump sum distribution, are the excess assets allocated to the PVAB minus the value of the RMD, or are the excess assets allocated to each participant's PVAB? In the second case, the over 73 participants would receive a larger share of excess assets.
Connor Posted September 12 Posted September 12 IMO, it would be the latter, with my reasoning being that the allocation of excess assets would happen before distributions are made, and the RMD is carved out of one's benefit when the payouts actually occur, especially since the RMD is not payable until 12/31/25 (or perhaps 4/1/26).
CuseFan Posted September 12 Posted September 12 As long as the allocation is nondiscriminatory and done in accordance with or not contradictory to any specific plan provisions for such you can do whichever way you want. David D 1 Kenneth M. Prell, CEBS, ERPA Vice President, BPAS Actuarial & Pension Services kprell@bpas.com
david rigby Posted September 15 Posted September 15 Please review the actual plan language. It may already answer the question. Or it might rule out a particular alternative. I'm a retirement actuary. Nothing about my comments is intended or should be construed as investment, tax, legal or accounting advice. Occasionally, but not all the time, it might be reasonable to interpret my comments as actuarial or consulting advice.
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