Magill Posted February 24 Posted February 24 If you have a straight 6% profit sharing plan with 5.7% on wages above social security wage base what is the formula. I do not know if my formula is wrong or my procedure for checking after calculation is wrong. Anyone run into this scenario.
Miles Leech Posted February 26 Posted February 26 Are you saying the plan uses a permitted disparity formula and is using 100% of the taxable wage base? If so, you could view the formula as either 6% of all compensation, plus an additional 5.7% on any compensation over the SS wage base 6% of compensation between 0 and the SS wage base, and 11.7% on compensation over the integration level Both achieve the same thing, and I've seen different individuals prefer calculating it either way. If you're asking specifically about a formula for excel to calculate it, I'd use =0.06*B2 + 0.057*MAX(0,B2-176100) Assumes 2025 taxable wage base, replace the 176,100 if using a different year. B2 would be the compensation used for allocations, can be changed to meet your needs. Miles Leech Plan Administrator, Journey Retirement Plan Services mleech@journeyrps.com | (616) 559-0045 Ext. 1 General information only, not financial, tax, or legal advice. Verify independently and consult appropriate professionals before acting.
CuseFan Posted February 26 Posted February 26 I think Magill's issue stems from the circular nature of compensation and contribution calculations for self-employed individuals when net earned income is just above or less than the 401(a)(17) limit. Kenneth M. Prell, CEBS, ERPA Vice President, BPAS Actuarial & Pension Services kprell@bpas.com
Bri Posted February 26 Posted February 26 So if he's got the derived Earned Income number popping in somewhere else, that becomes the B2 in Miles's formula above.
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