SSRRS Posted 14 hours ago Posted 14 hours ago Hi Thank you, as usual, for all the insights. A traditional DB plan is being audited by the IRS. 1. It appears from the questions being asked on the IDR, that the one asking the questions is not well versed in traditional DB plans or in DB plans in general. As they ask ...that the FT shown in the val report on the maximum contribution page is 1,846,234 is different than the FT shown on the SB of $1,345,367. The answer is that the SB shows the FT for the minimum funding requirements, while the FT on the val report in the maximum contribution section of the val report is based on the 404(0) rates for the maximum allowable contribution. There is indeed, a section in the val report that shows the FT for the minimum funding and it properly matches the FT shown in the SB. 2. They ask to provide a demonstration of how the plan provides meaningful benefits required by 401(a)(26). In a memo for EP determinations on 7/17/2007 (and Paul Shultz?) The IRS confirms that a benefit accrual of 0.5% per year of participation or service is meaningful...thus...a traditional DB plan that has a benefit formula of 0.5% of average compensation times credited service has a “meaningful benefit”. This plan under audit has a benefit a formula of 3% of avg. comp per year of year of service limited to 10 years. Question: Since the formula is 3% per year of service shouldn't this mean that the plan provides meaningful benefits? 3. They ask how the plan satisfies the nondiscrimination in amount requirements of 401(a)(4). A DB plan that uses a safe harbor formula satisfies 401(a)(4). This pla uses a SH formula... As it is the same formula for all employees, calculated based on the same number of service, and does not exceed 100% of comp. It uses a uniform accrual formula..benefits accrued at a consistent rate for all.. ...3%per year of service. Question: Therefore based on this, doesn't this plan meet the 401(a)(4) non discrimination in amount by design, and does not need annual testing? Thank you very much for any insights on this.
CuseFan Posted 2 hours ago Posted 2 hours ago These questions usually come from a checklist and are likely generic and all the same for a type of plan. Just provide the information requested - even if obvious, like meaningful benefits and a safe harbor formula (remember, compensation definition must be a SH as well). Then the auditor can check off their boxes. Hojo and Bri 2 Kenneth M. Prell, CEBS, ERPA Vice President, BPAS Actuarial & Pension Services kprell@bpas.com
david rigby Posted just now Posted just now To be clear, the term "meaningful benefits" does not appear in the 410a26 statute. It does appear in the regulation at § 1.401(a)(26)-3. Subsection (c)(2) includes the text: Quote Whether a plan is providing meaningful benefits, or whether individuals have meaningful accrued benefits under a plan, is determined on the basis of all the facts and circumstances. The relevant factors in making this determination include, but are not limited to, the following: the level of current benefit accruals; the comparative rate of accruals under the current benefit formula compared to prior rates of accrual under the plan; the projected accrued benefits under the current benefit formula compared to accrued benefits as of the close of the immediately preceding plan year; the length of time the current benefit formula has been in effect; the number of employees with accrued benefits under the plan; and the length of time the plan has been in effect. ... The Paul Schulz memo might have effect on how IRS employees approach their job, but it has no specific authority over any plan design. I'm a retirement actuary. Nothing about my comments is intended or should be construed as investment, tax, legal or accounting advice. Occasionally, but not all the time, it might be reasonable to interpret my comments as actuarial or consulting advice.
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